Hi Folks,
When I looked up the history of the “argument ad hominem” it seems that until deep into the 1900s it was usually, with few exceptions, quite limited .. an argument “to the man” which shows the inconsistency of the person to his own beliefs and principles.
Examples of this were even offered with Jesus and Paul talking to the Pharisees or the Jewish traditionalists, where they would be forced to reexamine the consistency of their own actions and interpretations.
Today the usage is almost entirely different .. the question of an argument “against the man” .. showing problems in his life, beliefs, etc. and whether or not that is cause to reject his argument. (There is a smidgen of overlap between the two, but only a smidgen.)
In neither case is the argument necessarily a fallacy, it simply depends on issues like relevance of the problem to their theories. (This came up out of the accusation that pointing out Westcott and Hort problems like occult dabbling was ipso facto a fallacious “ad hominem” argument.)
My posting here is not about the argument per se, simply the surprise to see two rather different arguments both considered “argument ad hominem”. And the lack of any real discussion .. anywhere .. of this dual perspective on the phrase.
Your thoughts ?
Shalom,
Steven Avery